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Capital Gains Question

December 2nd, 2011 at 02:17 pm

Hey guys,
I have a financial question. I have heard that the current regulations regarding taxes and house selling is: no capital gains taxes are paid from the first $250k earned from the sale of a house.

I have heard this before, but it just sunk in for me last week.

My question is: does this apply to me too? (In essence it boils down to that.)

Regarding my Impulsive Purchase that BB and I bought last year:

We bought it for $160k and put $120k into it. So one way or another we have paid $280k for the house. If we sell it for $400k…we are almost at the $250k appreciation level from the sales price even though half of the appreciation is from money we put in?

I guess my question is- is the $250k appreciation a “free and clear” appreciation (accrued from property value up to $530k), or will I just get the benefit of not paying capital gains on money I put in and invested in the property?

I am guessing the $120k I put in counts towards the first $250k appreciation break.

Was there a loophole that I could have utilized to ensure that my $120k counted towards the cost of the house and not towards an upward appreciation?

We are not planning to sell! I just want to know how it all works, now that I have a grasp on the concept.

2 Responses to “Capital Gains Question”

  1. MonkeyMama Says:

    Actually, if you are married the $500k is free and clear. It has to be your primary residence for 2 of the last 5 years to get the tax break. (But they recently changed the rules on homes you rent out, so just beware the rules are not so simple on your other home that you moved from).

    It doesn't matter what you invested - the property can appreciate $500k from what you paid for it.

  2. gamecock43 Says:

    Oh! It's $500k now! Glad I checked it out, then I have a long way to go. Thanks!

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